[XeTeX] [Off-topic] Persian versus Farsi

[Gareth Hughes]

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I've been learning Middle Persian or Pahlavi (never Middle Farsi or
Fahlabi!). The language is called Pārsīg (p'lsyk) at that period. The
adoption of the spelling with F is an arabicisation during the Islamic
period. Then, Arabic became the prestige language of Persia due to its
religious and political dominance. Arabic has no P (you can drink Bibsi
if you don't drink Kuka Kula), so the Arabic name of the language is
Fārsī, and this spelling and pronunciation became standard in Persian
(as noted by the 'Fârsi' in the title of the academy). However, the
spelling and pronunciation Pârsi is sometimes used, often as a conscious
de-arabicisation, and always (?) by Zoroastrians. Some in the Persian
diaspora, particularly after the revolution, popularised the use of
'Farsi' as the name of the language internationally, but linguists, both
within and without Iran, continue to use 'Persian' as the English name
of the language at all stages of its history. Using 'Farsi' in English
is a bit like talking about 'Français' or, as Vafa mentioned, 'Türkçe'
(note spelling). As you can see, politics is a major determinant on
language naming.

Gareth.

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