[XeTeX] [Off-topic] Persian versus Farsi

[Philip TAYLOR (Webmaster, Ret'd)]

Georg Duffner wrote:
> On 2011-06-11 10:27, Philip TAYLOR (Webmaster, Ret'd) wrote:
>
>> If the Academy of Persian Language and Literature "clearly advocates
>> the use of the word 'Persian' not 'Farsi'
>> <http://www.cais-soas.com/CAIS/Languages/persian_not_farsi.htm#_ftn46>",
>> why does it then use the
>> word 'Farsi' in its own name ("Farhangesta-n-e Zaba-n va Adab-e
>> *Fa-rsi-*") ?
>>
>
> Because persian in persian is called farsi (فارسی). During its 
> evolution persian /p/ has become /f/, so some old persian *parsi 
> became farsi in modern persian.
>
> Using the word farsi in its english translation like “Academy of Farsi 
> Language and Literature” would be like callig the Rat für deutsche 
> Rechtschreibung “Council for Deutsch Orthography”, which would be 
> equally wierd as calling it in german “Rat für german Rechtschreibung”.
>
> Georg

OK, understood, but I also feel that it rather begs the question (the 
English
name, that is, not your answer).  Because if the received wisdom were 
that the
preferred English name for the language  was Farsi and not Persian, then
the English name of the Academy would surely be the the “Academy of Farsi
Language and Literature”, would it not ?  So it is a sort of 
self-fulfilling prophesy :
the Academy of Persian Language and Literature "clearly advocates the 
use of
the word 'Persian' not 'Farsi'", because if it did not, it would call 
itself (in English)
the "Academy of Farsi Language and Literature" !

But if the Persian name for the Persian language is, in transliteration, 
/Fārsī/,
is it really logical for the Persian nation (or should I here be writing 
"Iranian" ?
This is quite a linguistic minefield) to seek to tell the West that 
while it
is perfectly normal for a Persian (Iranian) to call his language 
/Fārsī/, we in the
west must call it Persian ?!

** Phil.

Philip Taylor
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