[XeTeX] [Off-topic] Persian versus Farsi

[Georg Duffner]

On 2011-06-11 10:27, Philip TAYLOR (Webmaster, Ret'd) wrote:

> If the Academy of Persian Language and Literature "clearly advocates
> the use of the word 'Persian' not 'Farsi'
> <http://www.cais-soas.com/CAIS/Languages/persian_not_farsi.htm#_ftn46>",
> why does it then use the
> word 'Farsi' in its own name ("Farhangesta-n-e Zaba-n va Adab-e
> *Fa-rsi-*") ?
>

Because persian in persian is called farsi (فارسی). During its evolution 
persian /p/ has become /f/, so some old persian *parsi became farsi in 
modern persian.

Using the word farsi in its english translation like “Academy of Farsi 
Language and Literature” would be like callig the Rat für deutsche 
Rechtschreibung “Council for Deutsch Orthography”, which would be 
equally wierd as calling it in german “Rat für german Rechtschreibung”.

Georg